Question 4. 
 
A 72-year-old man was found to have an anterior rectal cancer at 2 cm from the anal verge. A 
CT scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis showed no evidence of metastatic disease. An MR 
scan of pelvis showed an anterior tumour abutting the prostate gland, radiologically staged as 
a T3, N1, M0 cancer. 
 
What is the most appropriate next step in management? 
 
A abdominoperineal 

resection 

B chemotherapy 
C long-course 

chemoradiation 

D short-course 

radiotherapy 

E  total mesorectal excision