Description
In this collection there will be a bunch of questions include histology, cytology and embryology
This collection is useful for medical, dental and pharmacy students and will help students to prepare for STATE exam
Study Set Content:
1. Each of the following statements concerning the thick skin is true, EXCEPT:
A
– covers the palms and the soles; B – undergoes considerable abrasion; C – is hairless;
D
– possesses sebaceous glands; E – has the thickest epidermis.
2. The epidermis of the thin skin contains the following layers, EXCEPT:
A
– stratum spinosum; B – stratum basale; C – stratum lucidum; D – stratum corneum; E –
stratum granulosum.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the epidermis stratum basale is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is represented by a single layer of stem cells; B – its cells are not capable of division;
C
– rests on the basal lamina; D – new keratinocytes arise from its cells; E – is basophilic.
4. The distinctive feature of the cells of the epidermis stratum granulosum is:
A
– they exhibit numerous cytoplasmic processes; B – they are capable of division; C –
they are anucleate squamous cells; D
– they rest on the basal lamina; E – their cytoplasm
contains keratohyalin granules.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the epidermis stratum lucidum is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– has a refractile appearance; B – contains eosinophilic cells; C – is present both in the
thick and in thin skin; D
– the nuclei and the cytoplasmic organelles of its cells become
disrupted; E
– its cells gradually fill with keratin.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the cells of the epidermis stratum
corneum is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are capable of division; B – are anucleate squamous cells; C – are filled with keratin; D
– their plasma membrane is thickened and coated with glycolipids; E – are sloughed off at
the epidermis surface.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the process of keratinization is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– keratinocytes produce tonofilaments that are grouped into tonofibrils; B – keratinocytes
synthesize keratohyalin granules; C
– the substance of keratohyalin granules combines
with tonofibrils converting them to keratin; D
– keratinocyte plasma membrane gradually
disappears; E
– the nuclei and the organelles of keratinocytes break down.
8. Each of the following statements c
oncerning the epidermis Merkel’s cells is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are macrophage-like cells; B – are located in the stratum basale; C – contain granules
with a neurosecretion; D
– are associated with the ending of afferent nerve fibres; E – the
combination of Me
rkel’s cell and a nerve fibre is a mechanoreceptor.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the hair is true, EXCEPT:
A
– consists of the medulla, cortex, and cuticle; B – its keratinized cells are filled with soft
keratin; C
– a hair follicle is surrounded by the connective tissue sheath, external and
internal root epithelial sheathes; D
– the hair bulb contains the matrix and is invaginated by
the connective tissue papilla; E
– hair cells and cells of the internal root sheath arise from
the matrix.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the sebaceous glands is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are simple branched alveolar glands; B – are characterized by the holocrine type of
secretion; C
– empty onto the epidermis surface; D – secrete sebum coating hair and the
skin surface; E
– their new secretory cells arise from basal cells at the gland periphery.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
11. The skin functions are as follows:
(1) protection against environmental physical, chemical, and biologic agents (2) regulation
of body temperature and water loss (3) reception of external stimuli (4) excretion of some
products via sweat glands
12. The following statements regarding the thin skin are true:
(1) has hair follicles (2) possesses sebaceous glands (3) its epidermis is thin (4) contains
arrector pili muscles
13. The following statements regarding the cells of the epidermis stratum spinosum
are true:
(1) exhibit numerous spines, short cytoplasmic processes (2) spines of adjacent cells are
attached to each other by desmosomes (3) their cytoplasmic tonofilaments become
grouped in tonofibrils (4) are stem cells
14. The following statements regarding the keratinocyte lamellar bodies are true:
(1) keratinocytes produce lamellar bodies containing glycolipids (2) the body content is
secreted by exocytosis into intercellular spaces (3) glycolipids coat and thicken
keratinocyte plasma membranes (4) glycolipids form the epidermis water barrier
15. The following statements regarding the skin melanocytes are true:
(1) originate from the neural crest (2) are pigment-producing cells (3) are dendritic cells (4)
reside both in the epidermis and in the dermis, especially in the sites of pigmentation
16. The following statements regarding the epidermis Langerhans cells are true:
(1) play a role in the immune response by presenting antigens to T cells (2) reside in the
stratum spinosum (3) belong to the mononuclear phagocytic system (4) arise from the
neural crest
17. The following statements regarding the skin dermis are true:
(1) its papillary layer consists of loose connective tissue (2) lacks blood vessels and nerve
fibres (3) its reticular layer consists of dense irregular connective tissue (4) does not
possess receptors
18. The following statements regarding the eccrine sweat glands are true:
(1) are simple tubular coiled glands (2) their secretory portions include secretory cells and
myoepithelial cells (3) take part in body temperature regulation (4) are associated with hair
follicles
19. The following statements regarding the functions of the eccrine sweat glands
are true:
(1) regulate body temperature due to evaporation of water from the sweat on the body
surface (2) produce “goose flesh” (3) participate in excretion of urea, uric acid, and
ammonia (4) provide bacteriostatic protection of the skin
20. The following statements regarding the appocrine sweat glands are true:
are limited to the skin of the axilla, areola, nipple, and external genitalia (2) are associated
with hair follicles (3) become functional only at puberty and are dependent on sex
hormones (4) its odourless secretion undergoes bacterial action on the skin surface and
becomes odorant
20. URINARY SYSTEM
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the kidney functions is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– produce the urine; B – conserve water, essential electrolytes, and metabolites; C –
secrete angiotensin; D
– remove waste products of metabolism from body; E – secrete
erythropoietin and renin.
2. The following structures are located in, and make up, the kidney cortex, EXCEPT:
A
– renal corpuscles; B – transitional epithelium; C – proximal convoluted tubules; D –
distal convoluted tubules; E
– medullary rays.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the nephrons is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are functional units of the kidney; B – have the renal capsules; C – include the
proximal and distal convoluted tubules; D
– include the descending and ascending parts of
the loop of Henle; E
– empty into the minor calyx.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the renal corpuscles is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– include the double-layered renal capsule; B – the capsular parietal layer consists of flat
cells and surrounds the capsular space; C
– the capsular visceral layer consists of
podocytes and surrounds the capillary glomerulus; D
– the glomerulus contains
continuous- type capillaries; E
– the site where afferent and efferent arterioles penetrate
the capsule is the corpuscle vascular pole.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the renal filtration barrier is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– includes the capsular parietal layer; B – includes the endothelium of glomerular
capillaries; C
– the glomerular basement membrane is the principal barrier component; D –
the glomerular basement membrane consists of three layers; E
– the lamina densa of the
glomerular basement membrane contains collagen network and acts as a physical filter.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the renal proximal convoluted
tubules is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are more tortuous and longer than the distal convoluted tubules; B – possess cuboidal
cells specialized for absorption and fluid transport; C
– lack the brush border and basal
striations; D
– reabsorb 80% of primary filtrate; E – reabsorb amino acids, sugars, and
other organic substances.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the renal distal convoluted tubules
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– have cuboidal cells with basal striation; B – their epithelial cells possess the brush
border; C
– reabsorb Na
+
under aldosterone control; D
– reabsorb water under ADH
regulation; E
– are less tortuous and shorter than the proximal convoluted tubules.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the renal collecting tubules is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are lined with the cuboidal or low columnar epithelium; B – their epithelium includes
dark and light cells; C
– water permeability of their epithelium is regulated by ADH; D –
their cells possess the brush border; E
– their dark cells secrete hydrogen ions into the
urine creating its acid reaction.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the renal macula densa is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is formed in the distal convoluted tubule at the site of tubule contact with the vascular
pole of its parent renal corpuscle; B
– is located between afferent and efferent arterioles; C
– its epithelial cells become higher and narrower, their nuclei appear crowded; D – its cells
control NaCl concentration in the urine and regulate renin release; E
– its cells produce
renin.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the renal juxtaglomerular cells is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– are modified smooth muscle cells; B – are located in afferent and sometimes in
efferent arterioles; C
– contain secretory granules; D – are chemoreceptors and control the
blood concentration of NaCl; E
– synthesize, store, and release renin.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the transitional epithelium is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– lines the mucosa of all excretory passages; B – its surface cells are dome-shaped and
bulge into the lumen; C
– is highly permeable for salts and water; D – consists of 5 or 6
layers in unstretched condition; E
– consists of 2 or 3 layers in stretched condition.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the juxtamedullary nephrons is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– are the principal nephrons producing the urine; B – the diameters of their afferent and
efferent arterioles are equal; C
– their vasa recta have arteriovenous anastomosis; D –
their corpuscles are in proximity to the base of medullary pyramids; E
– serve for the blood
passage during exercise.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
13. The following structures are located in, and make up, the kidney medulla:
(1) descending limbs of the loops of Henle (2) ascending limbs of the loops of Henle (3)
collecting tubules and ducts (4) vasa recta
14. The following statements regarding the kidney medullary rays are true:
(1) are parts of the kidney cortex (2) project into the cortex from the medulla (3) contain the
collecting tubules (4) include the straight tubule components of nephrons
15. The following statements regarding the kidney lobule are true:
(1) consists of the collecting duct and all the nephrons it drains (2) the medullary ray is the
lobular centre (3) the interlobular blood vessels mark the boundaries between the adjacent
lobules (4) it is a renal secretory unit
16. The following statements regarding the kidney arterial portal system are true:
(1) the afferent arteriole branches and forms the glomerular capillaries (2) the glomerular
capillaries are drained into the efferent arteriole (3) the efferent arteriole branches and
forms the peritubular capillary network (4) the diameter of the efferent arteriole is larger
than that of the afferent arteriole
17. The following statements regarding the renal podocytes are true:
(1) are the cells of the capsular parietal layer (2) have processes subdivided into pedicels
(3) lack their own basement membrane (4) the processes of neighboring podocytes
interdigitate to form filtration slits
18. The following statements regarding filtration in the renal corpuscle are true:
(1) filtration is caused by high blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries (2) the blood
formed elements and large proteins do not pass through the filtration barrier (3) filtration
results in the primary urine formation (4) contraction of afferent arterioles reduces filtration,
contraction of efferent arterioles increases it
19. The following statements regarding the renal mesangial cells are true:
(1) these cells and their extracellular matrix constitute the mesangium (2) are positioned
among the loops of glomerular capillaries (3) are enclosed by the capillary basal lamina (4)
are parts of the filtration barrier
20. The following statements regarding the functions of the renal mesangial cells
are true:
(1) are phagocytic and remove proteins, residues, and debris from the glomerular
basement membrane (2) provide structural support for podocytes where the basement
membrane is absent or incomplete (3) are contractile and play a certain role in regulating
the glomerular blood flow (4) take part in filtration
21. The structures taking part in the countercurrent exchange are as follows:
(1) loops of Henle (2) collecting ducts (3) vasa recta (4) convoluted tubules
22. The following statements regarding the renal loop of Henle are true:
(1) water diffuses into the hypertonic interstitium from its descending portion (2) its
ascending portion is largely impermeable for water (3) its ascending limb actively
transports ions from the lumen to the interstitium (4) the interstitium becomes hypertonic
due to the action of its ascending limb
23. The following statements regarding the renal collecting ducts are true:
(1) are lined with columnar epithelial cells (2) pass through the hypertonic medullary
interstitium (3) water leaves their lumen passively, without energy (4) take part in
countercurrent exchange
21. MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Spermatogenesis takes place in the following tubules:
A
– straight tubules; B – rete testis; C – seminiferous tubules; D – ductuli efferentes; E –
ductus deferens.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the spermatogenetic stage of
proliferation is true, EXCEPT:
A
– stem cells divide to give rise to two daughter cells: one remains as a stem cell, the
other is committed spermatogonium; B
– stem cells undergo meiotic divisions; C –
committed spermatogonia undergo several successive divisions to increase their number;
D
– the daughter cells of committed spermatogonium remain connected by cytoplasmic
bridges; E
– offspring of a stem cell is united to form the syncytium.
3. The following events take place at the spermatogenetic stage of growth:
A
– mitotic division of primary spermatocytes; B – meiotic division of secondary
spermatocytes; C
– mitotic division of spermatogonia; D – meiotic division of
spermatogonia; E
– prophase of the first meiotic division.
4. The following transformations of the spermatid take place in spermiogenesis
(stage of formation), EXCEPT:
A
– the nucleus becomes decondensed; B – Golgi complex produces an acrosomal
granule that is converted to an acrosome; C
– mitochondria form the helical sheath round
the axonemal complex; D
– the distal centriole initiates formation of the axonemal
complex, the proximal centriole remains near the nucleus; E
– residual cytoplasm is lost.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the testicular myoid cells is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– their cytoplasm is rich in myofilaments; B – are surrounded by the basal laminae; C –
their rhythmic contractions create peristaltic waves of the seminiferous tubules; D
– are not
capable of collagen synthesis; E
– are involved in selective transport into and out of the
seminiferous tubules.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the testicular Sertoli cells is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– their basal portions rest on the basal lamina; B – their apical portions have processes
extending into the tubule lumen; C
– possess centrioles and are capable of division; D –
their plasma membranes have receptors for FSH and testosterone; E
– their cytoplasm is
rich in organelles and inclusions.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the testicular Sertoli cell functions is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– support spermatogenic cells; B – provide the exchange of substances between
spermatogenic cells and blood; C
– eliminate residual bodies and abnormal sperms; D –
secrete testicular fluid, ABP, and inhibin; E
– provide peristaltic contractions of the
seminiferous tubules.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the compartmentalization of the
seminiferous tubules is true, EXCEPT:
A
– Sertoli-Sertoli tight junctions establish basal and luminal compartments; B –
spermatogonia are in the basal compartment; C
– spermatocytes and spermatids are in
the luminal compartment; D
– meiosis and spermiogenesis occur in the basal
compartment; E
– primary spermatocytes pass from the basal compartment to the lumenal
one due to the formation of a new transitional compartment.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the testicular Leydig cells is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are parts of the seminiferous epithelium; B – their cytoplasm is rich in sER, Golgi
complex, vesicular mitochondria, and lipid droplets; C
– produce androgens, mainly
testosterone; D
– their plasma membranes possess receptors for LH and estrogens; E –
primarily release the hormone into testicular lymph.
10. The following structures constitute the blood-testis barrier. Choose the firmest
structures providing the immune isolation:
A
– capillary wall; B – connective tissue; C – lymphatic sinusoid; D – Sertoli-Sertoli tight
junctions; E
– the tunica propria of seminiferous tubules.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the hormonal regulation of the
testis is true, EXCEPT:
A
– FSH effects on the Sertoli cells and they produce ABP in testicular fluid; B – LH effects
on the Leydig cells and they secrete testosterone; C
– ABP concentrates testosterone
within the tubules to regulate sperm maturation; D
– inhibin from Sertoli cells provides
feedback with LH; E
– testosterone is involved in feedback loop regulating LH production.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the epididymis is true, EXCEPT:
A
– has the head, body, and tail; B – sperm maturation in it is not androgen-dependent; C
– sperms acquire motility passing through it; D – its epithelial cells secrete glycoproteins
that are added to the sperm glycocalyx preventing from premature acrosomal reaction; E
–
smooth muscle coat of the ductus epididymis increases in thickness and becomes three-
layered in the tail.
13. Each of the following statements concerning the prostate gland is true, EXCEPT:
A
– surrounds the ejaculatory duct; B – its glands are mucosal, submucosal, and
peripheral; C
– the glandular epithelium depends on testosterone; D – the glands are
surrounded by connective tissue with bundles of smooth muscle cells; E
– its alveoli often
contain concretions, especially in elderly males.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
14. The intratesticular part of the male genital ducts includes:
(1) seminiferous tubules (2) rete testis (3) ductuli efferentes (4) straight tubules
15. The extratesticular part of the male genital duct system consists of:
(1) ductuli efferentes (2) ductus epididymidis (3) ductus deferens (4) ductus ejaculatorius
16. The following statements regarding the spermatogenic syncytium are true:
(1) is a specific association of differentiating cells (2) occurs because intercellular bridges
are present between the progeny of each stem spermatogonium (3) intercellular
connections remain intact until the last stages of spermatid maturation (4) all its cells
undergo synchronous divisions and differentiation
17. The spermatogenetic stage of maturation includes:
(1) first meiotic division (2) mitotic division (3) second meiotic division (4) sperm maturation
18. The spermatogenetic stage of formation includes:
(1) mitotic division (2) meiotic division of primary spermatocytes (3) meiotic division of
secondary spermatocytes (4) differentiation of spermatids into sperms
19. The physiological conditions that are necessary for spermatogenesis are as
follows:
(1) the presence of testosterone (2) temperature that is equal to body temperature (3)
isolation of spermatogenic cells from the immune system (4) the absence of any hormones
20. The following statements regarding the vulnerability of spermatogenic cells are
true:
(1) spermatogenic cells are not sensitive to noxious agents (2) spermatogenic cells are
very sensitive to noxious agents (3) proliferating cells are not sensitive to injury (4) stem
spermatogonia are much less vulnerable then actively dividing and differentiating cells
21. The tunica propria of the seminiferous tubules consists of:
(1) basal lamina (2) collagen and elastic fibres (3) several layers of myoid cells (4)
amorphous ground substance
22. The following statements regarding the seminiferous epithelium are true:
(1) is complex stratified epithelium (2) is composed of two cell populations (3) the Sertoli
cells are its true epithelial parts (4) spermatogenic cells are its principal parts
23. The androgens are responsible for:
(1) normal development of the male fetus (2) development and maintenance of secondary
male sex characteristics (3) initiation and maintenance of sperm production (4) initiation
and maintenance of the male accessory gland functions
24. The following statements regarding the testicular interstitial connective tissue
are true:
(1) is testicular endocrine part due to the presence of Leydig cells (2) its blood capillaries
are continuous (3) contains lymphatic sinusoids surrounding the seminiferous tubules like
sheathes (4) its blood capillaries are sinusoidal fenestrated
25. The following statements regarding the blood-testis barrier functions are true:
(1) creates specific chemical composition for spermatogenic cell development (2) provides
hormonal homeostasis in the seminiferous tubules (3) isolates antigenic spermatocytes
and spermatids from the immune system (4) prevents sperm antigen entering the systemic
circulation
26. The ductus deferens wall consists of the following tunics:
(1) mucosa (2) adventitia (3) three-layered muscularis (4) submucosa
22. FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
– I
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the large growth of ovogenesis is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– begins at puberty; B – is represented by primary oocytes leaving the dictyotene; C –
includes accumulation of organelles, yolk granules, and cortical granules; D
– lasts about
two weeks until just before ovulation; E
– is hormone-independent.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the ovogenesis stage of maturation
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– the primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division shortly before ovulation; B – the
secondary oocyte begins the second meiotic division at ovulation; C
– cytoplasm division
between daughter cells is equal; D
– the second meiotic division progresses only to
metaphase when it is arrested; E
– the second meiotic division is completed if the
secondary oocyte is fertilized.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the ovary is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is invested by a connective tissue capsule and the germinal epithelium; B – its
germinal epithelium is a source of new oogonia; C
– its cortex contains follicles, atretic
bodies, and the corpus luteum; D
– its medulla contains connective tissue with blood
vessels, lymphatics, and nerves; E
– produces female gametes and secretes female sex
hormones.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the secondary ovarian follicles is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– contain the primary oocyte at large growth surrounded by the zona pellucida; B – their
follicular epithelium becomes stratified and is named the membrana granulosa; C
– fluid-
filled cavities appear among their granulosa cells; D
– small cavities begin to coalesce
eventually forming the antrum; E
– lack the theca layer.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the ovarian theca cells is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are located in the theca interna of growing and mature follicles; B – their cytoplasm is
rich in sER, Golgi apparatus, vesicular mitochondria, and lipid drops; C
– secrete
androgens; D
– their secretory activity is under FSH control; E – their androgens are
transported to the granulosa cells where they become estrogens.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the ovarian mature follicle is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– represents the earliest stage of follicular development; B – bulges on the ovary surface
because of its large size; C
– its oocyte is surrounded by the zona pellucida and the
corona radiata; D
– its oocyte is acentrically positioned at the cumulus oophorum; E – its
antrum increases in size and is surrounded by the granulosa cells.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the ovulation is true, EXCEPT:
A
– it is controlled by the LH and FSH peaks; B – the secondary oocyte at metaphase II
leaves the ovary and enters the oviduct; C
– before ovulation the stigma disappears; D –
the stigma ruptures forming a small gap in the capsule, germinal epithelium, and follicle
wall; E
– the oocyte with its surrounding leaves the ovary via this gap.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the corpus luteum activity and its
hormonal regulation is true, EXCEPT:
A
– the corpus luteum formation is controlled by LH; B – mature corpus luteum secretes
progesterone; C
– the corpus luteum secretion is controlled by prolactine (LTH); D – high
blood progesterone levels stimulate the cyclic development of ovarian follicles; E
–
progesterone stimulates the endometrium to prepare it for future implantation.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the ovarian corpus luteum is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– the corpus luteum of pregnancy reaches the size of 2–3 cm and retains its functional
capacity for about half a year; B
– the corpus luteum of menstruation remains active for 28
days; C
– the granulosa lutein cells are large, pale, and centrally located; D – the theca
lutein cells are small, dark, and peripherally located; E
– the corpus luteum undergoes
involution after pregnancy or menstruation and is replaced by the corpus albicans.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the ovarian follicle atresia is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– oocyte degeneration appears later than degenerative changes in the follicular wall; B –
the oocyte undergoes degeneration and autolysis; C
– oocyte remnants are removed by
macrophages; D
– the zona pellucida is slowly broken down in the follicular cavity; E –
results in the corpus luteum formation.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
11. The following statements regarding the ovogenesis stage of proliferation are
true:
(1) begins and ends during early fetal life (2) is represented by oogonia that divide by
mitosis (3) completes before birth when all oogonia become primary oocytes (4) includes
the arrested phase called dictyotene
12. The following statements regarding the small growth of the ovogenesis are true:
(1) begins in embryogenesis (2) its essence is the prophase of the first meiotic division (3)
prophase I completion does not occur until puberty (4) primary oocytes remain in the
arrested prophase called dictyotene for several years
13. The following statements regarding the ovarian primordial follicles are true:
(1) are composed of the primary oocyte at the dictyotene surrounding by a single layer of
squamous follicular cells (2) are the earliest stage of follicular development (3)
predominate in number among ovarian follicles (4) are located in the ovarian medulla
14. The following statements regarding the ovarian primary follicles are true:
(1) their primary oocytes begin the large growth and considerably enlarge in volume (2)
oocytes and follicular cells produce the zona pellucida (3) follicular cells proliferate,
become cuboidal in shape, and form one layer (4) the theca layer appears
15. The following statements regarding the ovarian follicle granulosa cells are true:
(1) secrete liquor folliculi (2) are involved in selective transport between blood and the
oocyte (3) can convert androgens to estrogens (4) possess plasma membrane FSH
receptors
16. The following statements regarding the ovarian follicle theca are true:
(1) theca interna contains loose connective tissue, blood vessels, and theca cells (2) is
present only in mature (Graafian) follicles (3) theca externa consists of dense irregular
connective tissue (4) produces estrogens
17. The following statements regarding the events preceding follicle rupture in
ovulation are true:
(1) follicular fluid volume and pressure increase (2) myofibroblasts of the theca externa
contract (3) the follicular wall undergoes enzymatic proteolysis (4) the oocyte-cumulus
complex separates from the granulosa layer
18. The following events take place in the ovarian corpus luteum formation:
(1) the basement membrane of granulosa cells undergoes destruction (2) granulosa cells
and theca cells proliferate (3) blood vessels from the theca interna grow into the granulosa
layer (4) a rich network of sinusoidal fenestrated capillaries is established
19. The granulosa cells and theca cells undergo the following morphological
changes in the corpus luteum formation:
(1) increase in size (2) become filled with lipid droplets (3) accumulate sER and vesicular
mitochondria (4) lipochrome imparts the yellow colour to them in fresh specimens
20. The following statements regarding the ovarian follicle atresia are true:
(1) numerous follicles undergo atresia during fetal development, early postnatal life, and
puberty (2) atresia of primordial and primary follicles leaves no traces of their existence (3)
atresia of growing follicles results in their reorganisation into atretic bodies secreting
estrogens (4) atresia declines in the climacteric period
21. The following events take place in the ovarian follicle atresia:
(1) blood vessels, neutrophils, and macrophages invade the granulosa layer (2) granulosa
cell slough into the follicle antrum (3) theca cells acquire the ability to secrete estrogens (4)
the basement membrane separates from follicular cells, increases in thickness, and
becomes a glassy membrane
23. FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
– II
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the follicular phase of the ovarian
cycle is true, EXCEPT:
A
– lasts from the 1st to the 14th day of a cycle; B – actively secreting corpus luteum is
present in the ovary; C
– follicles at various stages of development, atretic follicles, and the
corpus luteum in involution up to the corpus albicans are present in the ovary; D
– the
ovaries primarily secrete estrogens; E
– estrogen blood level rises and reaches the peak
by ovulation.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– begins after ovulation and lasts up to the 28th day of a cycle; B – at the beginning of
this phase, the corpus luteum is formed; C
– the corpus luteum produces progesterone; D
– progesterone stimulates the ovarian follicle development; E – at the end of this phase,
the corpus luteum begins to regress, and progesterone level declines.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the hormonal regulation of the
ovarian cycle is true, EXCEPT:
A
– FSH blood level possesses two peaks: on the 7th day and on the 14th day; B – LH
blood level sharply increases by the 14th day; C
– progesterone inhibits LH production; D
– estrogens stimulate LH secretion and inhibit FSH secretion; E – prolactin (LTH) does not
take part in the ovarian cycle regulation.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the endometrium is true, EXCEPT:
A
– its epithelium is simple columnar, consisting of secretory and ciliated cells; B – its
glands are simple nonbranched tubular; C
– secretion of its glands is controlled by
estrogens; D
– its glandular bottoms contain stem cells for re-epithelialization; E – the
endometrial stroma consists of loose connective tissue.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the proliferative phase of the
menstrual cycle is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is regulated by progesterone; B – epithelial cells in glandular bottoms proliferate and
cover the endometrial surface; C
– the endometrium thickens due to proliferation of
stromal cells and matrix secretion; D
– uterine glands are restored; E – the helical
arterioles are re-established.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the secretory phase of the
menstrual cycle is true, EXCEPT:
A
– starts 2-3 days after ovulation; B – the endometrium thickens by edema; C – the
uterine glands begin to secrete; D
– the helical arterioles become more coiled; E – is
controlled by estrogens.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the menstrual phase of the uterine
cycle is true, EXCEPT:
A
– starts when the corpus luteum begins to regress, and progesterone level declines; B –
initially, contractions of the helical arteriole wall occur and last several hours; C
– arterial
contractions result in ischemia and necrosis of the functional layer; D
– subsequent arterial
dilation leads to vessel rupture, bleeding, and desquamation of the necrotic functional
layer; E
– the rising level of progesterone stops menstrual discharge.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the oviduct epithelium is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– its secretory cells produce mucus providing embryo implantation; B – its secretory
cells produce mucus providing the initial embryo development till the morula stage; C
– its
secretory cells create the environment for fertilization; D
– its ciliated cells facilitate the
transport of gametes and an embryo; E
– its cilium waves are directed towards the uterus;
9. Each of the following statements concerning the vaginal epithelium is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is stratified squamous; B – undergoes keratinization during the cycle; C – its cells
synthesize and accumulate glycogen; D
– its cells are continuously desquamated into the
vaginal lumen where bacteria metabolise glycogen into lactic acid; E
– vaginal acid pH
limits the growth of pathogenic organisms.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the mammary gland development
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– the nipple, areola, and rudimentary duct system develop in embryogenesis; B – at
puberty, the glands increase in size due to duct formation and connective tissue
development; C
– secretory portions develop at puberty under estrogen stimulation; D –
progesterone stimulates alveolus growth in pregnancy; E
– alveoli begin to secrete milk
after delivery.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the lactation regulation is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– the act of suckling initiates sensory impulses from the nipple to the hypothalamus; B –
prolactin is released from the adenohypophysis in response to the impulses; C
– sensory
impulses cause oxytocin release in the neurohypophysis; D
– oxytocin stimulates
myoepithelial cells to contract; E
– prolactin inhibits milk secretion in the alveolar cells.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
12. The following statements regarding the ovarian cycle are true:
(1) includes the follicular phase and the luteal phase (2) ovulation occurs between two
phases at midcycle (3) is controlled by the adenohypophysial hormones (4) averages
about 28 days in length
13. The following statements regarding the endometrial functional layer are true:
(1) is sloughed and then re-established during the cycle (2) includes the covering
epithelium and the lamina propria (3) is supplied by the helical arterioles (4) includes the
bottoms of uterine glands
14. The following statements regarding the endometrial basal layer are true:
(1) is retained during the cycle and serves for regeneration of the functional layer (2) is
supplied by the helical arterioles (3) includes the bottoms of uterine glands (4) lacks stem
and undifferentiated cells for re-epithelialization
15. The following statements regarding the menstrual cycle are true:
(1) is accompanied by the uterine discharge called menstruation (menses) (2) is controlled
by the ovarian hormones: estrogens and progesterone (3) consists of three phases (4) if
embryo implants, the cycle stops
16. The following statements regarding the uterine gland mucoid secretion are true:
(1) is rich in nutrients, particularly glycogen (2) is produced under FSH control (3) its
immunoglobulins provide endometrial sterility (4) is secreted during the whole cycle
17. The following statements regarding the uterine cervix are true:
(1) its mucosa lacks the helical arterioles and is not sloughed during the cycle (2) its
branched glands secrete the whole cycle (3) the volume and character of secreted mucus
change during the cycle (4) its myometrium contains more connective tissue and less
smooth muscle cells
18. The following statements regarding the secretion of uterine cervix glands are
true:
(1) is watery under estrogen influence that allows easier sperm passage (2) increases in
volume at midcycle under estrogen influence (3) is highly viscous under progesterone
influence that hinders the passage of sperms or microorganisms (4) its character in
pregnancy is the same as that in the luteal phase
19. The following statements regarding the oviduct mucosa are true:
(1) lacks the glands (2) forms folds that fill the oviduct lumen (3) its simple epithelium
consists of ciliated and secretory cells (4) is not sensitive to the ovarian hormones
20. The following statements regarding the vaginal epithelium cyclic changes are
true:
(1) epithelium thickens and its superficial cells are desquamated under estrogen control (2)
estrogens inhibit the synthesis and accumulation of glycogen in the epithelial cells (3) cells
of intermediate and parabasal layers are desquamated under progesterone control (4)
progesterone stimulates the synthesis and accumulation of glycogen in the epithelial cells
21. The following statements regarding the mammary glands are true:
(1) are the features of only mammals (2) phylogenetically, are modified apocrine sweat
glands and belong to the skin system (3) are compound branched alveolar glands (4)
produce milk that nourishes newborns and provide their immunological defence from
enteric infections
22. The following statements regarding the mammary gland alveoli are true:
(1) consist of secretory and myoepithelial cells (2) secretory cells are rich in lipid and
protein droplets (3) myoepithelial cells are arranged in basket-like network between
secretory cells and their basal lamina (4) myoepithelial cell contractions help to eject milk
from the acini
23. The following statements regarding the secretion mode of the mammary gland
alveolar cells are true:
(1) the protein component of milk is released via the apocrine mode (2) the lipid
component of milk is released via the apocrine mode (3) the lipid component of milk is
released via the merocrine mode (4) the protein component of milk is released via the
merocrine mode
24. INITIAL STAGES OF HUMAN EMBRYONIC DEVELOPMENT
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. The results of fertilization are as follows, EXCEPT:
A
– sex determination; B – restoration of the diploid number; C – blastocyst formation; D –
cleavage initiation; E
– creation of new chromosome and gene combination.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the sperm passage in the female
genital tract is true, EXCEPT:
A
– sperm selection does not occur in passage; B – through the cervical canal
spermatozoa pass by their tail movements; C
– sperm passage through the uterus and
oviduct is assisted by organ muscular contractions; D
– seminal plasma prostaglandins
stimulate these muscular contractions; E
– ovum produces substances attracting sperm.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the acrosome reaction is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– may occur only after sperm capacitation; B – the acrosomal outer membrane fuses
with the overlying sperm plasmalemma at many places; C
– fused membranes rupture
producing multiple perforations; D
– the enzymes leave the acrosome through
perforations; E
– cortical granules open and release their enzymes.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the ovum penetration by a sperm is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– acrosomal enzymes facilitate the sperm passage through the oocyte envelopes; B –
when the sperm passes through the zona pellucida, cortical reaction occurs; C
– the
oocyte and sperm plasma membranes fuse and break down at the point of contact; D
–
the sperm plasma membrane enters the oocyte cytoplasm; E
– the sperm nucleus enters
the oocyte cytoplasm.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the human cleavage is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is a process of successive rapid mitotic divisions; B – blastomeres increase in volume
becoming progressively larger; C
– proceeds in the oviduct during the first three days
when the morula is formed; D
– continues in the uterus during 3 or 4 days when the
blastula is formed; E
– is holoblastic, unequal, and asynchronous.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the blastocyst is true, EXCEPT:
A
– contains the outer layer called the trophoblast, from which the chorion arises; B – is
surrounded by the zona pellucida before implantation; C
– lacks its own cavity; D –
contains the inner cell mass called the embryoblast, from which the embryo proper arises;
E
– lies in the uterine secretions until it is attached to the endometrium.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the first stage of gastrulation is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– embryoblast is transformed into the bilaminar disk; B – delamination is a mechanism of
this stage; C
– epiblast will give rise to three germ layers; D – hypoblast will be displaced
to extraembryonic regions; E
– occurs during the first week of development.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the second stage of gastrulation is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– occurs on the 7th day of development; B – morphological changes take place only in
epiblast; C
– proliferation and migration of epiblastic cells give rise to the primitive streak
with a primitive groove; D
– the primitive streak cells migrate through the primitive groove
inwardly between epiblast and hypoblast to form endoderm and mesoderm; E
– the cells
that remain in epiblast after migration are refered to as ectoderm.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the notochord is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is formed by cell migration through the primitive knot; B – looks like a cellular rod that
grows between ectoderm and endoderm from the primitive knot towards the cranial end; C
– forms the midline axis of the embryo; D – gives rise to the embryo skeleton; E –
degenerates, but persists as the nucleus pulposus of intervertabral disks.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the mesoderm differentiation is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– somites divide into the myotome, dermotome, and sclerotome; B – the somite cord
differentiates into the nephrogonadotome; C
– coelom appears in the paraxial mesoderm;
D
– the somatopleure and splanchnopleure surround the coelom; E – some cells leave the
mesoderm and become the mesenchyme.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the mesoderm differentiation is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– myotome gives rise to skeletal muscles; B – dermotome gives rise to the skin dermis;
C
– sclerotome gives rise to the skeleton; D – nephrogonadotome gives rise to the kidney
and gonads; E
– coelom will become the abdominal cavity.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the mesoderm and mesenchyme
differentiation is true, EXCEPT:
A
– somatopleure and splanchnopleure give rise to the mesothelium lining serous cavities;
B
– mesenchyme develops into blood, lymph, and blood vessels; C – endocardium is
derived from mesenchyme; D
– myocardium and epicardium arise from mesenchyme; E –
splanchnopleure takes part in the adrenal cortex development.
13. Each of the following statements concerning the cell determination and
differential genome activity is true, EXCEPT:
A
– include changes in cell structure, biochemistry, and functions; B – they determine the
pathway of cell differentiation; C
– each cell nucleus contains a complete genome
established in the zygote during fertilization; D
– as cells develop, some genes are
expressed and others repressed; E
– only a small percentage of genome is expressed in
each cell, and RNA portion is specific for a given cell type.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
14. The following statements regarding the ovum transport along the uterine tube
are true:
(1) the ovum passes through the oviduct by beating action of epithelial cilia (2) muscular
contractions of the tubal wall assist the ovum passage (3) it takes the oocyte 25 minutes to
reach the ampulla (4) the ovum is viable during 24 hours after ovulation
15. The following statements regarding the fertilization are true:
(1) occurs in the oviduct ampulla (2) is part of progenesis (3) requires about 24 hours (4)
completes the initial period
16. The following statements regarding the sperm capacitation are true:
(1) is removal of the glycoprotein coat from the plasma membrane over the acrosome (2)
spermatozoa are capacitated by substances of the female genital tract (3) lasts for 7 hours
(4) acrosome reaction occurs after capacitation
17. The following statements regarding the cortical reaction are true:
(1) cortical granules open and release their enzymes (2) physiochemical characteristics of
the zona pellucida change, and the zona reaction is formed (3) zona reaction is
impermeable to spermatozoa (4) zona reaction facilitates oocyte penetration
18. The following statements regarding the events of fertilization after penetration
are true:
(1) the second meiotic division is completed (2) the sperm head enlarges to form the male
pronucleus (3) male and female pronuclei approach, contact, and lose their membranes
(4) chromosomes intermingle at metaphase of the first zygote division
19. The following statements regarding the cleavage are true:
(1) blastomeres do not differentiate (2) through the first divisions blastomeres retain
totipotentiality (3) initially, cleavage is under control of maternal macromolecules (4) later,
development depends on the embryonic genome
20. The following statements regarding the neurulation are true:
(1) includes the formation of the neural plate, neural groove, neural tube, and neural crest
(2) the neural tube is the primordium of the central nervous system (3) the neural crest
gives rise to spinal and autonomic ganglia, Schwann cells, meningeal covering of the
brain, pigment cells, and the adrenal medulla (4) dermotome induces overlying ectoderm
to form the neural plate
21. The following statements regarding the mesoderm differentiation are true:
(1) paraxial mesoderm divides into somites (2) intermediate mesoderm forms the somite
cord (3) lateral mesoderm is divided into somatopleure and splanchnopleure (4)
somatopleure and splanchnopleure surround the coelom
22. The following statements regarding the germ layer differentiation are true:
(1) some mesoderm cells migrate to form the mesenchyme (2) mesenchyme gives rise to
blood, all types of connective tissue, smooth muscle cells, blood vessels, microglia, and
the endocardium (3) surface ectoderm differentiates into the epidermis, hair, nails, skin
glands, mammary glands, salivary glands, and tooth enamel (4) endoderm gives rise to
the digestive tract epithelium, liver, pancreas, and lung epithelium
23. The following statements regarding the folding of the human embryo are true:
(1) longitudinal and transverse folds are formed in the early embryonic period (2) folds
convert the flat embryonic disk to a C-shaped cylindrical embryo (3) folding separates the
embryo body from the yolk sac and closes the primitive gut (4) folding results in the
formation of the human amnion
24. Differentiation is:
(1) the choice of a cell’s particular fate (2) development of specialized cell types from stem
cells (3) cell capabilities have not yet been realized (4) changes in the cell structure and
biochemistry for the cell to perform distinctive functions
25. The following statements regarding the cell potentialities are true:
(1) the zygote is totipotential (2) stem cells are pluripotential (3) immature descendants of
stem cells are usually oligopotential (4) mature cells are unipotential
25. HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning implantation is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is a process of blastocyst invasion into the endometrium; B – begins on the 5 or the
6th day when the blastocyst loses the zona pellucida and is attached to the endometrium;
C
– invasion proper lasts about 40 h; D – is hormone-independent; E – finishes when
regenerated epithelium covers the endometrial defect.
2. The events of the second week of embryonic development are as follows,
EXCEPT:
A
– blastocyst formation; B – the first stage of gastrulation; C – amniotic vesicle formation;
D
– chorion development; E – yolk sac formation.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the yolk sac is true, EXCEPT:
A
– exists only two months and then regresses; B – its remnant will be a part of the
umbilical cord; C
– contains yolk and provides embryo nourishment; D – first blood cells
develop in its endoderm; E
– gonoblasts are located in its endoderm before they return
into the embryo.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the chorion functions is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– provides selective exchange between the embryo and maternal organism; B –
secretes enzymes to erode the endometrium; C
– provides immune defence of the
embryo; D
– creates watery environment for the fetus; E – produces human chorionic
gonadotropin.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the decidual reaction is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– trophoblastic cells undergo transformation and become decidual cells; B – implantation
is a stimulus for this reaction; C
– decidual cells are large, pale, and rich in glycogen; D –
decidual cells take part in embryo nourishment; E
– decidual cells create a specialized
layer facilitating placenta separation from the uterus at the end of pregnancy.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the endometrium in pregnancy is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– is called the decidua because it is shed in parturition; B – its decidua basalis underlies
the implantation site; C
– its decidua capsularis separates the embryo from the uterine
lumen; D
– its decidua parietalis includes the remaining part of the endometrium; E – lacks
decidual cells.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the chorion is true, EXCEPT:
A
– its secondary villi become tertiary villi when they acquire blood vessels; B – its portion
associated with the decidua basalis is a villous chorion; C
– its portion associated with the
decidua capsularis is a smooth chorion; D
– its villi are never attached to maternal tissues;
E
– stem villi project from the chorionic plate and are divided into branch villi.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the fetal part of the placenta is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– the umbilical cord is not attached to the fetal surface; B – includes the chorionic plate
and tertiary villi arising from it; C
– the villi project into lacunae and are bathed by maternal
blood; D
– anchoring villi are attached to maternal tissues by the cytotrophoblastic shell; E
– the amnion underlies the chorionic plate and continues as the umbilical cord covering.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the maternal part of the placenta is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– includes the decidua basalis; B – the decidua basalis lacks decidual cells; C –
placental septa project from the decidua basalis towards the chorionic plate; D
– the septa
divide the placenta into lobules (cotyledons); E
– the deepest layer of the decidua basalis
called the decidual plate remains after parturition and provides endometrial regeneration.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the uteroplacental circulatory
system is true, EXCEPT:
A
– fetal blood enters the placenta through the umbilical arteries; B – umbilical vessels
branch in the chorionic plate and supply the villi; C
– fetal blood returns through villous
veins that converge to form the umbilical vein; D
– fetal and maternal blood mix; E –
maternal blood circulates through intervillous spaces and returns into the venous system
through veins that communicate with the lacunae.
11. The placental barrier includes the following structures, EXCEPT:
A
– syncytiotrophoblast of chorionic villi; B – connective tissue of the decidua basalis; C –
chorionic cytotrophoblast with its basal lamina; D
– connective tissue of tertiary villi; E –
endothelium of chorionic capillaries and its basal lamina.
12. The placental barrier undergoes the following changes in pregnancy, EXCEPT:
A
– gradually disappears; B – the cytotrophoblast degenerates; C – villous connective
tissue lying between the capillaries and trophoblast thins out and disappears; D
– villous
capillaries become disposed just below the trophoblast; E
– the barrier gets thin to
facilitate product exchange.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
13. The human embryonic development is divided into the following periods:
(1) initial (2) embryonic (3) fetal (4) postnatal
14. The events of the first week of the human embryonic development are as
follows:
(1) fertilization (2) cleavage (3) blastula formation (4) gastrulation
15. The following statements regarding the trophoblast in implantation are true:
(1) trophoblast differentiates into cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast (2)
cytotrophoblastic cells divide, migrate outwards, fuse, and form a syncytiotrophoblast (3)
syncytiotrophoblast produces enzymes to erode the endometrium (4) syncytiotrophoblast
forms processes that invade the endometrium
16. The following statements regarding the implantation sites are true:
(1) blastocyst usually implants in the upper portion of the uterus (2) implantation in the
lower uterine portion may cause severe bleeding (3) blastocyst usually implants on the
posterior wall or rarely on the anterior wall of the uterus (4) implantation outside the uterine
cavity is called ectopic
17. The following statements regarding the amnion are true:
(1) is filled with the amniotic fluid that creates watery environment for the fetus (2) provides
mechanical defence of the fetus (3) exists and functions up to birth (4) appears in the first
week of development
18. The following statements regarding the chorion are true:
(1) its primary villi consist of the trophoblast and blood vessels (2) its secondary villi
include the trophoblast and extraembryonic mesoderm (3) its villi never contact with
maternal blood (4) intervillous spaces form the trophoblastic lacunar network
19. The following statements regarding the embryo in the second week of
development are true:
(1) the embryo appears like a bilaminar disk (2) the embryo is associated with the amniotic
vesicle and the yolk sac (3) the chorion forms the chorionic sac with a cavity (4) the
embryo is attached to the inner side of the chorion by a connecting stalk
20. The following statements regarding the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
are true:
(1) is produced by the embryonic disk cells (2) is excreted in the maternal urine (3) inhibits
progesterone production (4) maintains the corpus luteum of the maternal ovary
21. The events of the third week of the human embryonic development are as
follows:
(1) the second stage of gastrulation and trilaminar embryo formation (2) development of
axial organs and their initial differentiation (3) formation of the primitive cardiovascular
system (4) further development of chorionic villi
22. The following statements regarding the primitive cardiovascular system
formation are true:
(1) angiogenesis begins in the yolk sac, the connecting stalk, and the chorion (2)
development of embryonic vessels begins later (3) the primitive heart arises from the
mesenchyme and appears like paired endothelial channels (4) the cardiovascular system
is the last system to attain a functional state
23. The following statements regarding the selective exchange through the
placental barrier are true:
(1) antibodies cannot cross the barrier (2) gases, electrolytes, some nutrients, and wastes
freely pass the barrier by simple diffusion (3) red blood cells never pass the barrier (4)
protein hormones do not reach the fetus in significant amounts, steroid hormones freely
pass the barrier
24. The following statements regarding the placental barrier permeability for
dangerous agents are true:
(1) most drugs freely cross the placenta by simple diffusion (2) measles, poliomyelitis, and
rubella viruses may pass through the barrier (3) alcohol and nicotine cross the placental
barrier (4) most of dangerous agents may cause congenital malformations
25. The following statements regarding the placenta metabolism are true:
(1) placenta synthesizes glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty acids (2) syncytiotrophoblast is
the site of placental metabolic activity (3) placenta serves as a source of nutrients and
energy for the embryo (4) placenta cannot synthesize hormones
26. The placenta is the major endocrine gland producing the following hormones:
(1) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (2) human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)
(3) relaxin (4) estrogens and progesterone
27. The following statements regarding the umbilical cord are true:
(1) is covered with the amniotic epithelium (2) includes one artery and two veins (3)
contains mucoid connective tissue (4) lacks the allantois and yolk sac remnants
28. The following statements regarding the critical periods of the embryonic
development are true:
(1) developmental disturbances may cause congenital malformations in these periods (2)
implantation is not a critical period (3) the time from the 4th to the 8th weeks is the most
critical period (4) placentation is not a critical period
29. The following statements regarding the allantois are true:
(1) appears on the 16th day as a finger-like projection elongating from the embryo into the
connecting stalk (2) degenerates during the second month, its remnant is found in the
umbilical cord (3) directs blood vessel growth from the embryo towards the chorion (4) its
intraembryonic portion is associated with development of the urinary bladder
KEY
1. Cytology
1
E
11
C
21
E
31
B
2
D
12
E
22
E
32
B
3
B
13
C
23
A
33
A
4
C
14
A
24
B
34
E
5
B
15
B
25
E
35
C
6
A
16
D
26
E
36
D
7
C
17
C
27
E
37
E
8
E
18
B
28
A
38
D
9
C
19
A
29
E
10
A
20
D
30
C
2. Epithelial tissue
1
D
7
C
13
A
19
A
2
B
8
A
14
A
20
D
3
B
9
D
15
E
21
B
4
A
10
C
16
C
22
A
5
C
11
A
17
B
6
E
12
E
18
A
3. Blood
1
D
7
E
13
E
19
B
2
A
8
C
14
B
20
C
3
D
9
D
15
C
21
B
4
D
10
B
16
D
22
A
5
B
11
E
17
D
23
B
6
A
12
A
18
B
24
B
4. Connective tissue
1
A
7
B
13
A
19
A
2
B
8
E
14
E
20
A
3
C
9
C
15
A
21
A
4
E
10
D
16
E
22
B
5
D
11
B
17
E
23
C
6
A
12
C
18
E
24
A
5. Cartilage and Bone
1
D
8
A
15
E
22
A
2
B
9
E
16
E
23
B
3
D
10
C
17
D
24
E
4
C
11
D
18
A
25
B
5
E
12
B
19
E
26
D
6
A
13
A
20
A
27
E
7
D
14
E
21
B
28
E
6. Muscle tissue
1
E
8
D
15
E
22
E
2
B
9
C
16
E
23
A
3
A
10
E
17
C
24
A
4
C
11
C
18
E
25
E
5
B
12
D
19
E
26
A
6
D
13
B
20
E
27
C
7
E
14
E
21
A
7. Nervous tissue
1
D
8
A
15
A
22
A
2
E
9
E
16
A
23
E
3
C
10
D
17
C
24
A
4
B
11
B
18
A
25
A
5
C
12
C
19
E
26
A
6
E
13
B
20
E
27
C
7
C
14
D
21
B
28
E
8. Nervous system
1
B
8
A
15
E
22
C
2
D
9
E
16
B
23
A
3
C
10
E
17
E
24
A
4
A
11
D
18
A
25
A
5
D
12
B
19
E
26
E
6
B
13
B
20
E
27
A
7
D
14
C
21
A
28
E
9. Primary sentient sense organs
1
E
9
E
17
E
25
B
2
B
10
B
18
A
26
E
3
A
11
D
19
E
27
E
4
C
12
A
20
E
28
E
5
B
13
D
21
A
29
A
6
E
14
E
22
E
30
A
7
C
15
D
23
A
31
E
8
B
16
A
24
C
10. Secondary sentient sense organs
1
C
8
D
15
B
22
D
2
B
9
E
16
E
23
A
3
D
10
B
17
A
24
A
4
A
11
D
18
E
25
A
5
E
12
A
19
C
26
A
6
C
13
E
20
A
7
B
14
C
21
B
11. Cardiovascular system
1
C
9
C
17
E
25
A
2
B
10
D
18
E
26
C
3
E
11
E
19
A
27
A
4
A
12
B
20
B
28
A
5
B
13
A
21
C
29
A
6
C
14
B
22
D
30
C
7
D
15
A
23
A
31
E
8
D
16
E
24
A
32
E
12. Hemopoiesis. Central organs of hemopoiesis
1
D
7
E
13
E
19
D
2
C
8
D
14
A
20
A
3
A
9
B
15
E
21
E
4
E
10
E
16
E
22
B
5
B
11
C
17
E
23
A
6
D
12
E
18
C
24
A
13. Peripheral organs of hemopoiesis and immunogenesis
1
C
7
D
13
B
19
A
2
C
8
B
14
A
20
A
3
E
9
D
15
D
21
A
4
B
10
A
16
A
22
D
5
C
11
D
17
A
6
B
12
E
18
E
14. Endocrine organs
1
D
10
B
19
C
28
A
2
B
11
D
20
A
29
E
3
A
12
E
21
A
30
E
4
D
13
A
22
A
31
E
5
C
14
D
23
B
32
A
6
B
15
D
24
B
33
B
7
D
16
B
25
B
34
E
8
A
17
A
26
A
9
D
18
E
27
E
15. Digestive system
– I
1
D
7
D
13
E
19
E
2
A
8
B
14
C
20
B
3
C
9
A
15
B
21
D
4
B
10
C
16
E
22
E
5
E
11
E
17
A
23
E
6
B
12
A
18
D
16. Digestive system
– II
1
C
8
B
15
E
22
E
2
A
9
D
16
D
23
A
3
E
10
A
17
A
24
A
4
B
11
D
18
E
25
E
5
D
12
E
19
D
26
E
6
B
13
D
20
A
27
E
7
E
14
E
21
E
17. Digestive system
– III
1
B
9
C
17
C
25
E
2
E
10
E
18
B
26
D
3
C
11
E
19
A
27
A
4
D
12
B
20
A
28
A
5
A
13
D
21
E
29
E
